Miles Mathis

Beyond the boundaries of established science an avalanche of exotic ideas compete for our attention. Experts tell us that these ideas should not be permitted to take up the time of working scientists, and for the most part they are surely correct. But what about the gems in the rubble pile? By what ground-rules might we bring extraordinary new possibilities to light?

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Re: Miles drops a bomb

Post by altonhare » Wed Dec 02, 2009 1:17 pm

webolife wrote:I disagree on the intensity question... the hammer blow effects a quicker switch than a soft touch considering the entire time of contact. But there is an additional factor, that of the relative "energies" of the different colors in the spectral fringe that necessarily accompanies the central line of light upon which we are measuring "response time." Depending on the slit width aspect of the set-up, the spectrum will be "spread" differently (eg. narrower apparatus produces more spectral spread); and the relay will be thrown by light actions of differing "energy" (eg. blue will "contact" the system with greater energy than red).
I'd probably just use a nearly monochromatic laser. I wouldn't have a "slit". Just a vacuum chamber with two reflective walls essentially. One wall has a hole in it and the laser protrudes out of the hole. The laser fires at the slightest angle I can put it at accurately. It hits the opposite reflective wall and induces a tiny signal, reflects back to the original wall inducing a tiny signal, and back and forth across the chamber.

If the light is ever "slowed" the ticks of the clock between signals will get longer. If the intensity changes the signals just get harder to see above the noise. If I increase the distance between the walls and the clock ticks increase proportionately with the distance increase, this would convince you that light propagates at finite velocity?
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Re: Miles drops a bomb

Post by webolife » Wed Dec 02, 2009 3:22 pm

First let me clarify that I don't believe intensity is a major player in long distance measurement/application of the c rate concept, but that it may play a part in short range measurements with "real" measuring devices. Let me try to override what I think are some false assumptions on your part by asking a return question:

Leave the walls the same distance apart but place sensors all along the original wall at many distances from the source laser. As the light "bounces" off the opposite mirrored wall, the sensors should fire at different times depending on how many "bounces" it takes to get the light stuff to reflect back and forth to reach ever more distant sensors... a problem arises in that the intensity of the laser signal [you are right in saying "near-monochromatic"; there is no such thing as a non spectral laser, just a narrower spectrum] is decreasing with distance. Make sure the sensors are so sensitive that they will trip with the ever so slightest stimulus. Light from a non-point source [the only kind] cannot be completely collimated and will spread over distance to possibly kilometers in width, as with the lunar ephemeris laser equipment. In addition, the mirrored surface of the reflecting wall must be so well polished that the amount of diffusion created in the reflections is minimized or able to be compensated for as you analyze the detection data. Now the question:

With all this and possibly other adjustments in place or compensated for, if the detector at the far end of the mirrored hallway fires at the same time as the detectors at the near end of the apparatus, would this be "proof" enough to you that there is no appreciable "c-rate"?

We differ in our hypotheses about the answer to this question. You say there will be an appreciable time lag wrt distance, I say virtually none, with all pertinent factors accounted or compensated for. Pioneer 10 and 11 are "listened" to with the assumptions of c, and the results are ambivalent at best. The angle of reflection must be a non-zero angle, as described in our thought experiment here, but at pluto-like distances the resulting return signal cannot be encountered by the earth-based sensors without the earth traveling through a significant orbital arc, almost a day's journey. When the signal is finally encountered, it may not confirm a c-rate for the signal itself, only that it took a while for the earth to "get in the way of" that signal, and even then, what part of the wide signal spectrum actually "trips" the receiver?
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Re: Miles drops a bomb

Post by webolife » Wed Dec 02, 2009 3:36 pm

Sovereign,
I'm not ignoring your question... or maybe I was :lol:
For me, my retina is a peripheral element of the field of that distant star.
When the field is altered by a "voltage change" such as happens when atomic shells collapse on the surface of the star, my retina, as a peripheral part of the field, registers the voltage drop like a voltmeter as an increased light signal. Retro, when an explosive event happens on that surface, in my view, I see that as the slightest reduction in light.
This is my simple view of why sunspots are "dark", not exactly in accordance with some views on this forum.
Collapsing/condensing/contracting/concentrating fields produce a light signal, expanding fields are relatively "dark".
This is also a general description of "hot" and "cold".

Put these ideas together, and you see that light may not be "emitted stuff", and therefore the c-rate need not apply.
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Re: Miles drops a bomb

Post by altonhare » Wed Dec 02, 2009 8:32 pm

webolife wrote: Leave the walls the same distance apart but place sensors all along the original wall at many distances from the source laser. As the light "bounces" off the opposite mirrored wall, the sensors should fire at different times depending on how many "bounces" it takes to get the light stuff to reflect back and forth to reach ever more distant sensors... a problem arises in that the intensity of the laser signal [you are right in saying "near-monochromatic"; there is no such thing as a non spectral laser, just a narrower spectrum] is decreasing with distance. Make sure the sensors are so sensitive that they will trip with the ever so slightest stimulus. Light from a non-point source [the only kind] cannot be completely collimated and will spread over distance to possibly kilometers in width, as with the lunar ephemeris laser equipment.
Kilometers in width, with an i.e. Nd/Yag or argon ion laser?

Let's also be clear, that the sensors trip in response to a small defined band of frequencies where the laser is spec'd to produce the most intense lines.
webolife wrote: In addition, the mirrored surface of the reflecting wall must be so well polished that the amount of diffusion created in the reflections is minimized or able to be compensated for as you analyze the detection data. Now the question:

With all this and possibly other adjustments in place or compensated for, if the detector at the far end of the mirrored hallway fires at the same time as the detectors at the near end of the apparatus, would this be "proof" enough to you that there is no appreciable "c-rate"?
With a suitable statistical definition for "at the same time". The differences in the times must not be significantly different from zero. Then, yes it would.

However I don't think this is entirely fair of me. It isn't feasible. There will almost certainly be SOME lag delta that is significantly different from zero, no matter who's right. The only way to decide if its a "real" lag or just an "apparent" lag (as you claim) would be to change the distance from source to target and see if the lag changes. If it doesn't change, I would be convinced, and I think that this can reasonably be done.
webolife wrote: We differ in our hypotheses about the answer to this question. You say there will be an appreciable time lag wrt distance, I say virtually none, with all pertinent factors accounted or compensated for.
You say "virtually none", but not none. There still will be one. The only way to make the distinction is how I described. We'll have to tilt the laser ever so slightly toward or away from the end of the hallway to decrease/increase the distance, and measure the lag again.
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Re: Miles drops a bomb

Post by webolife » Thu Dec 03, 2009 3:35 pm

Sounds like a good test!
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Re: Miles drops a bomb

Post by StevenO » Fri Dec 04, 2009 3:43 pm

altonhare wrote:
StevenO wrote:Now you are talking nonsense to me. Your first option is equal to what I described above and should give no fringe since light just moves through the device as a wave with velocity c+v. Your second option also does not give a fringe. I find the bullet model less attractive since it supposedly should fire bullets at an angle if the bullets only move at speed c.
You're losing the forest for the trees. Maybe check the diagrams I drew again, they seem pretty direct.
You just keep repeating your errors. You cannot make a diagram of something with a moving background.
altonhare wrote: First, assume no aether. Sitting in the device we just see a pulse go there and back, whether we are in the parallel arm or the perpendicular arm. No fringe.
Please explain how the experiment is supposed to work without ether. How is the light supposed to move then? You are inventing versions of the experiment and explanations that never existed before.
altonhare wrote:Sitting outside the device with v(device) = 0. We see the same thing. Sitting outside the device wth v(device) != 0, we calculate a staggerred arrival of the pulses to their respective mirrors, but it is compensated for on the return trip.

The above is what Miles did.
This is not what Miles described nor a correct explanation, he gives at least three different explanations to make himself clear.
altonhare wrote:Now, assume an aether. Sitting in the device we see pulses go there and back. If the device is moving wrt the aether at v, in the parallel arm we calculate c-v/c on the way out and c+v/c on the way back. In the perpendicular arm we calculate sqrt((v/c)2+(x/c)2) on the way there and the way back, where x is the length of the arm.

The best way to see this is in terms of distances-traveled. In the parallel arm, on the way out the pulse must traverse a longer distance through the aether than on the way in to get from source to target, if the device is moving wrt the aether. The distance through the aether is longer by v/c on the way out ad shorter by v/c on the way back in the parallel arm. The distance through the aether in the perp arm is sqrt((v/c)2+(x/c)2) both ways.
You are mixing up two observer positions. Being with the device you can never see or calculate yourself as moving. The distance L will remain the distance L.
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Re: Miles drops a bomb

Post by altonhare » Sat Dec 05, 2009 2:40 pm

StevenO wrote:
altonhare wrote:
StevenO wrote:Now you are talking nonsense to me. Your first option is equal to what I described above and should give no fringe since light just moves through the device as a wave with velocity c+v. Your second option also does not give a fringe. I find the bullet model less attractive since it supposedly should fire bullets at an angle if the bullets only move at speed c.
You're losing the forest for the trees. Maybe check the diagrams I drew again, they seem pretty direct.
You just keep repeating your errors. You cannot make a diagram of something with a moving background.
The background, the grid, is not moving. That should be plain to see. The dots are moving "to the right".
StevenO wrote:
altonhare wrote: First, assume no aether. Sitting in the device we just see a pulse go there and back, whether we are in the parallel arm or the perpendicular arm. No fringe.
Please explain how the experiment is supposed to work without ether. How is the light supposed to move then? You are inventing versions of the experiment and explanations that never existed before.
The simplest alternative, if light were not the disturbance of some medium like air, but was rather like a bullet fired from a gun. Of course light is not. A much less simple alternative would be if source and target were permanently connected by an entity along which light propagates. As source and target move in the same frame, the interconnecting entity goes right along with them. Light always travels the exact same distance along the interconnection, whether the source/target are moving wrt you or not. This models light as the disturbance of something, not as the "shooting of something" like a bullet. But unlike the classic passive aether it is consistent with the MM findings.
StevenO wrote:
altonhare wrote:Sitting outside the device with v(device) = 0. We see the same thing. Sitting outside the device wth v(device) != 0, we calculate a staggered arrival of the pulses to their respective mirrors, but it is compensated for on the return trip.

The above is what Miles did.
This is not what Miles described nor a correct explanation, he gives at least three different explanations to make himself clear.
Good one! I donno how I'll come back from that blow.
StevenO wrote:
altonhare wrote:Now, assume an aether. Sitting in the device we see pulses go there and back. If the device is moving wrt the aether at v, in the parallel arm we calculate c-v/c on the way out and c+v/c on the way back. In the perpendicular arm we calculate sqrt((v/c)2+(x/c)2) on the way there and the way back, where x is the length of the arm.

The best way to see this is in terms of distances-traveled. In the parallel arm, on the way out the pulse must traverse a longer distance through the aether than on the way in to get from source to target, if the device is moving wrt the aether. The distance through the aether is longer by v/c on the way out ad shorter by v/c on the way back in the parallel arm. The distance through the aether in the perp arm is sqrt((v/c)2+(x/c)2) both ways.
You are mixing up two observer positions. Being with the device you can never see or calculate yourself as moving. The distance L will remain the distance L.
Same mistake Miles makes, he assumes the result a priori. Nobody *knew* that one could not measure/calculate themselves as moving. Thus far in history nobody had, Galileo and Newton etc. did not think so. However a bunch of sound emitters moving through air can detect their motion relative to the air. At the time most believed that light was analogous to sound, hence the MM experiment.

The distance-traveled through the aether depends on relative motion through the aether. If there is no stationary passive aether then you're absolutely right, someone in the device cannot calculate themselves as moving.


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In the "frame" of X, the * has moved a distance 8. But according to the presumed aether (the 0's) it has moved from the bottom pink 0 to the top pink 0, which is a distance 8.944

No moving background, just a stationary aether symbolized by 0's. And for easy reference again here are the geometric figures I made to illustrate the point:
The upper circle is a light wave emitted from C to B, with C and B stationary. The distance-traveled from C to B is 2. The lower circle is a light wave emitted from F, but after it is emitted the target D moves to the right. The distance-traveled from F to D is 2.24.
The upper circle is a light wave emitted from C to B, with C and B stationary. The distance-traveled from C to B is 2. The lower circle is a light wave emitted from F, but after it is emitted the target D moves to the right. The distance-traveled from F to D is 2.24.
The upper circle represents the reflection of light from B back to C. B and C are not moving, the distance-traveled from B to C is the same as from C to B, 2. The lower circle represents light reflected from D. As it travels away from D the target G moves to the right. The distance traveled from D to G is the same as from F to D, 2.24.
The upper circle represents the reflection of light from B back to C. B and C are not moving, the distance-traveled from B to C is the same as from C to B, 2. The lower circle represents light reflected from D. As it travels away from D the target G moves to the right. The distance traveled from D to G is the same as from F to D, 2.24.
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Miles Mathis - clarification of a = v^2/r

Post by jjohnson » Sun Dec 06, 2009 1:41 pm

http://milesmathis.com/avr2.html

more food for thought. as usual with the lad.

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Re: Miles Mathis - clarification of a = v^2/r

Post by jjohnson » Thu Dec 10, 2009 10:08 am

Thursday, Dec 10: two more current papers by MM posted last night. Worth reading.

As a straw poll, how many of you (besides me) might be interested in purchasing a paper copy or downloading a book of collected papers by this author?

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Re: Miles Mathis - clarification of a = v^2/r

Post by StevenO » Thu Dec 10, 2009 12:40 pm

jjohnson wrote:Thursday, Dec 10: two more current papers by MM posted last night. Worth reading.

As a straw poll, how many of you (besides me) might be interested in purchasing a paper copy or downloading a book of collected papers by this author?
Count me in! He should publish by himself! (as no scientific publisher would want to burn its fingers)
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Response to Miles Mathis on tides

Post by Trouserman » Mon Dec 14, 2009 1:55 pm

In another thread, it was recommended to read Miles Mathis's essay, "The Trouble with Tides". I commented on his apparent misunderstandings and incorrect conclusions. This post is to elaborate on those issues.
Miles Mathis wrote:We know the ocean tides are caused by the Moon, since they follow lunar cycles. But are they caused by the Moon’s gravity? Let’s look at some numbers. Let’s compare the Sun’s field to the Moon’s field, at the Earth.
Miles's initial intuition appears to be that tidal forcing ought to be proportional to gravitational field strength. As MoscaicDave pointed out, this is simply wrong. Perhaps this is not actually his belief, but only a rhetorical device to guide readers who do have this intuition. I cannot tell.
aS = force on the Earth by the Sun
aS = GMS/r2
Actually, that's the gravitational field (an acceleration), not a force. This kind of sloppy use of language can only confuse the subject. Similarly, when we get to applying the 1/r3 law for tidal forcing:
FS = GmMS/r3
= 2.4 x 1011 N
The units of this expression are N/m, not N. The tidal force on an object is proportional also to the distance of the object from the center of the Earth. ("Tidal force" here refers to the difference between the actual gravitational force on the object and what it would be at the Earth's center. Also, this only applies to the linearized approximation along the line between the centers of Earth and Sun.) Miles has, furthermore, used the mass of the entire Earth for m, when in fact m refers to the mass of an object (or a piece of the Earth) at a particular location. If Earth was more massive, it would not directly increase the tidal effects other bodies have on the Earth.
So the gravitational attraction of the Sun is 178 times greater than that of the gravitational attraction of the Moon. But how can this be? We all know the moon is more effective in producing tides than the Sun. There is a simple explanation for this, and it is not that we have been lied to! It is only the proportion of the gravitational force not balanced by centripetal acceleration in the Earth’s orbital motion that produces the tides.2
Two major problems here. One, the gravitational force causes the centripetal acceleration. There can be no lack of balance.
The centripetal acceleration referred to is that of the Earth as a whole. If the Earth were completely rigid and not rotating, it would be the same for all points on Earth. (The details of Earth's rotation are separable and tidally neutral.) The gravitational force, however, is not the same at all points on Earth, so the equation Fgravity=macentripetal does not balance for each part of Earth. Instead, we see tidal effects in the form of tidal stresses (in addition to Fgravity) and dynamic responses (in addition to acentripetal).
As for the gravitational and centrifugal forces, although they are caused separately, they cannot cancel, since they both tend to create tides. In fact, most physics books and websites use a summation of centrifugal effects and gravitational effects to create tides on the Moon, as I will show below, since both are tidally positive.
Miles does not cite sources here, so I cannot determine whether the "most physics books and websites" in question are giving incorrect explanations (which is, sadly, possible), or Miles has simply misunderstood them. However, centrifugal forces cannot contribute to tidal forcing, as I'll show in a moment.
There are no centrifugal forces on the Earth directly caused by the Moon, since there is no angular velocity around the Moon.
This shows that Miles does not understand that centrifugal forces are not real forces. They are pseudoforces one must introduce to balance F=ma in a rotating coordinate system. They are not caused by physical objects, but are artifacts of non-inertial reference frames. They cannot have physical effects that are not accounted for by analysis in an inertial frame. Any mention of centrifugal forces without a well defined rotating reference frame is sloppy, and should be avoided because it only leads to confusion.

So, let's define a suitable rotating reference frame. Let the barycenter lie at the origin, and let the frame rotate with angular speed ω, such that the Earth and Moon (or Sun, as appropriate) are at rest in the frame. That is, they have an acceleration of 0. This is why one says the centrifugal and gravitational forces are in (imperfect) balance, since with a=0, Ftotal=0. Now, let us look as a piece (of mass m) of Earth in the plane of rotation, at a (vector) position r relative to the barycenter. (I'll use underscores for vectors here, since I'm finding bold isn't showing clearly enough.) The centrifugal force acting on this piece is

Fc = mω2r

Let the position of the center of the earth relative to the barycenter be R (constant, in this reference frame), and let x be the position of the piece relative to the center of the Earth. Then

r = R + x

If we substitute this simple vector relationship into the expression for centrifugal force, we get

Fc = mω2R + mω2x

The first term, mω2R, is a uniform contribution at all points on Earth, and is therefore tidally neutral. The second term, mω2x, is axisymmetric about the Earth's center, and is therefore also tidally neutral, just like the effect of the Earth's rotation about its axis. (In fact, it is exactly equivalent to the rotation one would observe in an inertial reference frame if the Earth were to appear not to rotate in our rotating reference frame.) When Miles later calculates the centrifugal force at the near and far edges of Earth, and notes their difference, he is missing the fact that it varies in an axisymmetric way, not preferentially along the line between Earth and Sun/Moon. This is not the case for the linearized gravitational variations. Although the derivation often leaves it our for simplicity, it can be shown that there is no linear term in the variation of the gravitational field in the perpendicular direction. (Higher order variations are much smaller than the linear terms when the gravitational source is distant compared to the size of Earth.)
Secondly, the math above is dishonest. If we look at the Sun/Earth system, then the center of gravity of the two bodies is so close to the center of the Sun that it makes no difference. The Earth has almost no effect on the Sun. Therefore, the distance L is just the radius R, and the equation is the same as
Ft = GmMR/R3
Miles is responding here to the equation Ft = GmML/R3 found in a brief FAQ answer which defines L as the distance from "the center of gravity of the system". I believe this is meant to be the linearized result given later as Ft = 2GmMr/R3. That is, L is supposed to be the distance from the center of the Earth (not the barycenter of the Earth/Moon or Earth/Sun system), and they have neglected a factor of 2. A derivation or even a diagram would help make the intended meaning clear, but there is none. It is a disappointingly sloppy and misleading answer. However, everything Miles concludes based on treating L as equal to R is the result of a simple error due to sloppy language, not dishonest mathematics.
"Linearizing" means differentiating the equation with respect to R, so that this new equation represents a change in the field, rather than the strength of the field.
Linearizing doesn't actually mean differentiating. It involves differentiating, but it means replacing a nonlinear relationship with a linear approximation. This is done when a linear approximation is easier to work with mathematically, and is close enough to the original relationship that the differences are irrelevant within the region of interest.
It is clear that the differentiating proves that there would be an inverse cube effect in the tide-producing differentials, supposing that the postulates of this theory are true.
At least we have some agreement here. But the way he phrases this, and statements like "They tell us this equation is approximately equal to..." suggest that Miles does not understand how linearization works. It is a result of calculus. If you have a well behaved function F(x), then for x near some particular R, F(x) is approximately a constant, plus a linear term, plus a quadratic term, plus a cubic term, and so on, given by

F(R+r) ~= F(R) + rF'(R) + 1/2 r2 F''(R) + ...

where F'(R) is the derivative of F at R, F''(R) is the second derivative of F at R, and so on. In the analysis of tidal forces, F(R) gives a uniform effect at all points which accounts for the acceleration of the Earth as a whole. rF'(R) gives the inverse cube term GM2r/R3 responsible for the bulk of tidal forcing. 1/2 r2 F''(R) gives a correction of 3GMr2/R4, which is smaller by a factor on the order of r/R. Since the size of the Earth is much less than the distance to the Moon or Sun, this correction is negligible. Further corrections are progressively smaller still.
I don't know that I would call it an inverse cube "law", since it does not apply to the field itself. It applies to the differential field.
Miles apparently interprets "law" in the scientific sense of a fundamental natural law. It is used, rather, in the mathematical sense of a power law relationship.
But the Earth is not in simple freefall around the Sun. It is in orbit.
Orbit is a special case of free fall.
We must therefore add a centrifugal effect to the static effect of the field.
Wrong, as I've demonstrated already.
The Standard Model, as expressed in Wikipedia and elsewhere, adds the centrifugal effect using this equation:
Δa = ω2mr
Without seeing the actual derivation in question, I cannot comment on whether the centrifugal force was used correctly or incorrectly. If incorrectly, that's a shame, but it's a good thing people were around to correct the error.
Note added August 2007: Confronted with parts of this paper in late 2005, Wikipedia deleted all its tidal theory math, its tidal theory page, and ordered a rewrite with lots of new illustrations. It appears they are perfecting their propanganda rather than admitting that their math and theory doesn't work.
Correcting an error is wildly different from perfecting propaganda.
Another major problem with tidal theory concerns its use and misuse of the barycenter. The barycenter is the center of gravity of the Earth/Moon system, which both bodies are said to orbit. Feynman was one of the most famous to suggest that the Earth has a non-negligible tide created by orbiting this barycenter.
A citation here would be interesting. Even very smart people make mistakes. It would be interesting to see just how far he took this idea.
Is this true? Let's do the full math.
What follows is some scattered mathematical expressions without formal definitions, in which he makes an arithmetic error in the computation of Δai = a - ai. (This definition is inferred, and has the opposite sign convention of Δao, which is strange given that Miles is otherwise consistent with his signs here.)
The effect doesn’t just raise a tide on the far side of the Earth from the Moon. In fact, it raises an even larger tide toward the Moon.
As I've already discussed, his conclusion that there is a huge tidal forcing from this ignores the fact that it is actually an axisymmetric variation. His conclusion that it's a larger effect on the side facing the moon is due to his arithmetic error compounding the problem.
The barycenter falsifies the entire standard analysis, since it would swamp all effects from the Sun and Moon. You cannot include effects from the barycenter, since they cannot be made to fit the given data. And you cannot fail to include effects from the barycenter, since current gravity theory demands a barycenter. This is called a failed theory.
You cannot simply look at the difference in centrifugal force on the near and far edges of the Earth without taking the symmetry into account. Doing so is much like looking at the difference between the effect of gravity from the Earth itself on the near and far edges.

ai = 9.8m/s2
ao = -9.8m/s2

This is 216,000 times as strong as the barycentric effect Miles tells us should swamp the tidal forcing of the Moon's gravity, and in the opposite direction. Applying the same error of not taking the symmetry into account might lead us to conclude that there should be enormous tides perpendicular to the direction towards the Moon.

It is at this point, roughly half way through the article, that I gave up completely. Whether his failings are in the physical concepts or the mathematics, it is clear that Miles Mathis is not equipped to criticize the standard model of tidal forcing.

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Re: Miles Mathis - clarification of a = v^2/r

Post by Trouserman » Mon Dec 14, 2009 3:06 pm

As far as I can tell, it's all gobbledygook founded on more gobbledygook, with nothing of value to be found.

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Re: Miles Mathis - clarification of a = v^2/r

Post by StevenO » Mon Dec 14, 2009 4:17 pm

Trouserman wrote:As far as I can tell, it's all gobbledygook founded on more gobbledygook, with nothing of value to be found.
I think Miles is extremely lucid, in shrill contrast with mainstream physics. His numbers work, please show where they don't if you disagree.
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Re: Miles Mathis - clarification of a = v^2/r

Post by Trouserman » Mon Dec 14, 2009 6:30 pm

StevenO wrote:I think Miles is extremely lucid, in shrill contrast with mainstream physics. His numbers work, please show where they don't if you disagree.
Certainly. This essay on a = v2/r is rooted in his earlier "The extinction of pi", in which he attempts to demonstrate that pi is 4. Although he urges the reader to start with still other earlier essays, the errors in this paper really cannot be corrected with additional background.
Miles Mathis wrote:The number π is a relationship. We already know that. Currently we think it is a relationship between the diameter and the circumference. The problem is, we treat the diameter and the circumference as equivalent mathematical entities, when they are not. One is a line and one is a curve. If we study the line and the curve with a bit more rigor, we discover they aren’t directly comparable.
He then gives a lengthy justification of this rooted in vague arguments about lines being velocities and curves being accelerations. (I won't go over the details.) But when he sets about showing that pi is 4, what does he do? He compares the arc length of 1/8 of a circle to the length of half the side of a circumscribed square, and finds them (erroneously) equal! This is in direct violation of his own assertion that curves cannot be directly compared to straight lines.

So, how does he go about doing this?
The historical way of finding the length of arc AC is by exhaustion or by calculus. We look at smaller and smaller subarcs until we reach the limit where the arc equals the chord.
Good enough so far. In fact, it works as the limit of either inscribed polygons (a series of chords) or circumscribed polygons. Inscribed polygons approach the arc length from below, while circumscribed polygons approach the arc length from above. But when Miles goes on to ostensibly carry this out, he doesn't look at the chords at all. He draws a stair-step diagram which doesn't approach the arc length at all!

Image

Compare Miles's stair-steps in blue with the inscribed segments (chords) in green and circumscribed segments in red. All touch the arc AC at the same points (to the best of my ability to render the diagram). Now ask yourself, which looks like it gives the best estimate of the arc length? Miles would have you believe it's the blue stair steps.

The arc lies between the red and green segments. As one increases the number of segments by subdividing the arc into smaller pieces, they quickly become visually indistinguishable from the arc and from each other. The red and green segments both approach the same limiting length, one from above and the other from below, and this limiting length is the accepted value of the arc length. Miles would have you believe that although the red segments lie closer to the arc than the blue stair steps, they provide a better measure of the arc length.

And this garbage then becomes the basis for further ramblings on orbital kinematics. It's useless. And if Miles can't even get this right, I have no confidence he can provide insight into any dynamical model, let alone mathematical rigor.

Trouserman
Posts: 23
Joined: Thu Dec 10, 2009 9:20 am

Re: Miles Mathis - clarification of a = v^2/r

Post by Trouserman » Mon Dec 14, 2009 6:39 pm

Oh, as for "his numbers work", just try wrapping some string around a cylinder and see which value of the arc length is closer, 2πr or 8r. Miles tells us the value of π tells us nothing. It's "just a ghost". And yet, it's used quite practically in numerous everyday situations involving circular objects and circular motion. If the correct value for π was 4, everyone would have noticed, not just one revolutionary mathematician.

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